29 Jun 2014

UGC-NET June 2014 : Solved Question Paper (Paper-I : Teaching & Research Aptitude)

UGC NET Solved Question Paper June 2014 - Paper

(Last Updated : 27.04.15). UGC-NET JUNE 2014 Exam was held on 29.06.2014. UGC NET June 2014 Result , Answer Keys & Question Papers have been published by UGC for Paper-I, Paper-II & Paper-III (all subjects). Here is the Solved Question Paper (Paper-I : General Paper) of UGC NET June 2014.

UGC-NET June 2014 Solved Question Paper : Paper - I (Code W) 


See Also UGC-NET JUNE 2014 Result, Qualifying Criteria & Cut-off

Paper – I : Teaching & Research Aptitude (Code-W) (updated)  

1. Break-down in verbal communication is described as
    (A) Short Circuit
    (B) Contradiction
    (C) Unevenness
    (D) Entropy
    Answer: (D)
2. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of
    (A) Technological theory
    (B) Dispersion theory
    (C) Minimal effects theory
    (D) Information theory
    Answer: (D)
3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
    (A) Karan Johar
    (B) Amir Khan
    (C) Asha Bhonsle
    (D) Gulzar
   Answer: (D)
4. Photographs are not easy to
    (A) Publish
    (B) Secure
    (C) Decode
    (D) Change
    Answer: (C)
5. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as
    (A) Sparks
    (B) Green Dots
    (C) Snow
    (D) Rain Drops
    Answer: (C)
6. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is
    (A) Noise
    (B) Audience
    (C) Criticality
    (D) Feedback
    Answer: (D)
7. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of Rs 7, Rs 8, Rs 10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
    (A) 19
    (B) 20
    (C) 23
    (D) 29
    Answer: (A)
8. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE?
    (A) OMESUCEM
    (B) OMESICSM
    (C) OMESICEM
    (D) OMESISCM
    Answer: (C)
9. lf the series 4,5,8,13,14,17,22,........ is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series?
    (A) 31
    (B) 32
    (C) 33
    (D) 35
    Answer: (C)
10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP: ..:........by choosing one of the following option given :
    (A) TS
    (B) ST
    (C) RS
    (D) SR
   Answer: (A)
11. A man started walking frorn his house towards south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left walked 5 Km after. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house?
    (A) 3 km
    (B) 4 km
    (C) 5 km
    (D) 6 km
    Answer: (C)
12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written?
    (A) 32
    (B) 36
    (C) 40
    (D) 38
    Answer: (A)
13. "lf a large diamond is cut up into little bits it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers. It loses its strength." The argument put above may be called as
    (A) Analogical
    (B) Deductive
    (C) Statistical
    (D) Casual
    Answer: (A)
14. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
      (A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
      (B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.
      (C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
      (D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment
      Answer: (C)
15. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but cannot both be false, the relation between those two propositions is called
       (A) contradictory
       (B) contrary
       (C) subcontrary
       (D) subaltern
      Answer: (C)
16. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).
Premises:
    (a) All dogs are mammals.
    (b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions:
    (i) No cats are mammals
    (ii) Some cats are mammals.
    (iii) No Dogs are cats
    (iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes:
     (A) (i) only
     (B) (i) and (ii)
     (C) (iii) and (iv)
     (D) (ii) and (iii)
    Answer: (C)
17. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each of Indians. The circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians. p,q,r,s... represent different regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians.
Teachmatters.in-NET-June 2014 Paper-I-photo
     (A) q and s only
     (B) s only
     (C) s and r only
     (D) p, q and s only
     Answer: (B)
Read the following table and answer question no 18-22 based on table
Year
Govt. Canals
Private Canals
Tanks
Tube wells and other wells
Other sources
Total
1997-98
17117
211
2593
32090
3102
55173
1998-99
17093
212
2792
33988
3326
57411
1999-00
16842
194
2535
34623
2915
57109
2000-01
15748
203
2449
33796
2880
55076
2001-02
15031
209
2179
34906
4347
56672
2002-03
13863
206
1802
34250
3657
53778
2003-04
14444
206
1908
35779
4281
56618
2004-05
14696
206
1727
34785
7453
58867
2005-06
15268
207
2034
35372
7314
60196

18. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
     (A) Government Canals
     (B) Private Canals
     (C) Tanks
     (D) Other Sources
      Answer: (C)
19. Find out the source of irrigation that has registered the maximum improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
    (A) Government Canals
    (B) Tanks
    (C) Tube Wells and other wells
    (D) Other Sources
    Answer: (D)
20. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate?
     (A) 1998-99
     (B) 2000-01
     (C) 2003-04
     (D) 2005-06
     Answer: (D)
21. Identify the source of irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.
    (A) Government Canals
    (B) Private Canals
    (C) Tube Wells and other wells
    (D) Other sources
    Answer: (A) 
22. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest?
     (A) 1998-99
     (B) 2000-01
     (C) 2002-03
     (D) 2004-05
       Answer: (C)
23. The acronym FTP stands for
      (A) File Transfer Protocol
      (B) Fast Transfer Protocol
      (C) File Tracking Protocol
      (D) File Transfer Procedure
     Answer: (A)
24. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format?
     (A) PNG
     (B) GIF
     (C) BMP
     (D) GUI
      Answer: (D)
25. The first Web Browser is
      (A) Internet Explorer
      (B) Netscape
      (C) World Wide Web
      (D) Firefox
      Answer: (C)
26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
      (A) RAM
      (B) ROM
      (C) CD-ROM
      (D) TCP
     Answer: (A)
27. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three?
      (A) MAC address
      (B) Hardware address
      (C) Physical address
      (D) IP address
      Answer: (D)
28. Identify the IP address from the following
      (A) 300 .215.317.3
      (B) 302.215@417.5
      (C) 202.50.20.148
      (D) 202-50-20-148
      Answer: (C)
29. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is l5 x I06 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
      (A) 54 million metric tons
      (B) 540 million metric tons
      (C) 5400 million metric tons
      (D) 2400 million metric tons
      Answer: (*) marks given to all candidates
30. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times?
      (A) Paris
      (B) London
      (C) Los Angeles
      (D) Beijing
      Answer: (D)
31. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
       (A) run-off urban areas
       (B) run-off from agricultural forms
       (C) sewage effluents
       (D) industrial effluents
         Answer: ?
32. 'Lahar' is a natural disaster involving
       (A) eruption of large amount of material
       (B) strong winds
       (C) strong water waves
       (D) strong wind and water waves
       Answer: (A)
33. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of pre-industrial times by
     (A) 1.5 oC to 2 oC
     (B) 2.0 oC to 3.5 oC
     (C) 0.5 oC to 1.0 oC
     (D) 0.25 oC to 0.5 oC
    Answer: (A)
34. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
     (A) Environment
     (B) Water Resources
     (C) Home Affairs
     (D) Defence
      Answer: (C)
35. Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
     List – I                                    List - II
     (a) Flood             (1) Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
     (b) Drought         (2) Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory                                                  waves through the rocks of the earth
     (c) Earthquake    (3) A vent through which molted substances come out
     (d) Valcano         (4) Excess rain and uneven distribution of water

Codes:

              (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)
    (A)       4          1          2          3
    (B)       2          3          4          1
    (C)       3          4          2          1
    (D)       4          3          1          2
   Answer: (A) 
36. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere?
     (A) Chlorofluorocarbon
     (B) Carbon dioxide
     (C) Methane
     (D) Nitrous oxide
    Answer: (C 
37. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:
    (i) Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
    (ii) India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
    (iii) The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.
    (iv) The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
    (A) (i) and (ii)
    (B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
    (C) (ii) and (iii)
    (D) (i) and (iv)
   Answer: (*) marks given to all candidates
38. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the planning Commission?
    (A) Chairman
    (B) Deputy Chairman
    (C) Minister of State of Planning
    (D) Member Secretary
    Answer: (B)
39. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
    (A) Union List
    (B) State List
    (C) Concurrent List
    (D) Residuary Powers
   Answer: (C)
40. Which of the following are Central Universities?
    1. Pondicherry University
    2. Vishwa Bharati
    3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
    4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    (A) 1, 2 and 3
    (B) 1, 3 and 4
    (C) 2, 3 and 4
    (D) 1, 2 and 4
   Answer: (A)
41. Consider the statement which ls followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments: (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
                 (ii)No; it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes:
     (A) Only argument (i) is strong.
     (B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
     (C) Both the arguments are strong.
     (D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
    Answer: (A)
42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept?
    (A) Assam University
    (B) Delhi University
    (C) Hyderabad University
    (D) Pondicherry University
   Answer: (B)
43. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University?
    1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
    2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
    3. President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
    4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
     (A) 1, 2 and 4
     (B) 1, 3 and 4
     (C) 1, 2 and 3
     (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer: (C)
44. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?
    (A) Students asking questions
    (B) Maximum attendance of the students
    (C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
    (D) Students taking notes
   Answer: (A)
45. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?
     (A) Lecture
     (B) Discussion
     (C) Demonstration
     (D) Narration
     Answer: (C)
46. Dyslexia is associated with
    (A) mental disorder
    (B) behavioural disorder
    (C) reading disorder
    (D) writing disorder
   Answer: (C)
47. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
    (A) INFLIBNET
    (B) Consortium for Educational Communication
    (C) National Knowledge Commission
    (D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
   Answer: (B)
48. Classroom communication is normally considered as
    (A) effective
    (B) cognitive
    (C) affective
    (D) selective
   Answer: (B)
49. Who among the following propounded the concept of paradigm?
     (A) Peter Haggett
     (B) Von Thunen
     (C) Thomas Kuhn
     (D) John K. Wright
    Answer: (C)
50. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in
     (A) The appendix
     (B) A separate chapter
     (C) The concluding chapter
     (D) The text itself
     Answer: (D)
51. A thesis statement is
     (A) an observation
     (B) a fact
     (C) an assertion
     (D) a discussion
    Answer: (C)
52. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as
      (A) positive paradigm
      (B) critical paradigm
      (C) natural paradigm
      (D) interpretative paradigm
     Answer: (D)
53. Which one of the following is a non probability sampling?
     (A) Simple Random
     (B) Purposive
     (C) Systematic
     (D) Stratified
      Answer: (B)
54. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.
     (A) Placement
     (B) Diagnostic
     (C) Formative
     (D) Summative
    Answer: (C) (updated)
55. The research stream of immediate application is
      (A) Conceptual research
      (B) Action research
      (C) Fundamental research
      (D) Empirical research
     Answer: (B)
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60:
Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the 'State'. The Indian 'State's' special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances which manually adhere in a geographical, economic and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of hwo the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in it traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word 'State' above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, at least before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state 'sovereignty' or of any church-and-state dichotomy.

      Modem Indian 'secularism' has an admittedly peculiar feature: It requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India's famed tolerance (Indian kings to rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More's Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absense of bigotry and  institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians. 

56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian state?
     (A) peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
     (B) peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economical and political sense
     (C) Social integration of all groups
     (D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups
    Answer: (B)
57. The author uses the word 'State' to highlight
    (A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.
    (B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
    (C) The concept of state sovereignty
    (D) Dependence of religion
   Answer: (B) (updated)
58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian 'secularism'?
     (A) No discrimination on religious considerations
     (B) Total indifference to religion
     (C) No space for social identity
     (D) Disregard for social law
    Answer: (A)
59. The basic construction of Thomas More's Utopia was inspired by
     (A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance
     (B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers
     (C) Social inequality in India
     (D) European perception of Indian State
    Answer: (A)
60. What is the striking feature of modern India?
     (A) A replica of Utopian State
     (B) Uniform Laws
     (C) Adherance to traditional values
     (D) Absense of Bigotry
    Answer: (D)

Note : This solution is updated with the authentic key by UGC.


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